I'm not here to question the perpetual virginity of Mary, but simply to question the logic of a statement related to this reality. In the article it is said: "If Mary is not Ever-Virgin, then Christ did not become God Incarnate. If Christ became God Incarnate, then Mary is Ever-Virgin." I really don't see how this is logical. Mary very well could have chosen to have sex after the birth of the Lord and it would not have annulled the reality of the Incarnation. Deusveritasest 00:18, November 14, 2008 (UTC)
- A really good article on this topic is available on the Orthodox Christian Information Center webpage:
- Why is Mary Considered Ever-Virgin?
- If this article helps you to understand the 'Orthodox' thinking/logic perhaps you can help us to re-word the above sentence so that it makes more sence to people who do not believe what we know to be the Truth? It is such a hard one to capture in mere human words, isnt it? Vasiliki
- also, St. Jerome wrote a very detailed treatise on this subject that one can find in several readily available translations—it is titled
- "The Perpetual Virginity of Blessed Mary"
- I know it still doesnt answer the problem of how to fix the phrasing/wording of the above sentence but at least these articles can be used by people for more information about the theology behind what the person was trying to say? Vasiliki 02:16, November 14, 2008 (UTC)