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You ares still misstating it. In Gen 38.9, there are two instances of zera/sperma, both of which refer to offspring. If the second instance referred to semen, as you just claimed, the text would read, "so that he would not give ejaculate to his brother." Jerome added a word to the text. which is something Orthodox don't generally like -- think filioque! I agree that it is implied by the text, but not specified. I say all this because you objected to my saying Jerome added the word, at which point you claimed the verse mentions vera/sperma twice -- it does, but in neither case does it refer to semen. I'm happy to let this question of what is in the verse end as long a you stop claiming that either instance of zera/sperma in the MT or LXX refers to semen. --[[User:Fr Lev|Fr Lev]] ([[User talk:Fr Lev|talk]]) 14:34, June 28, 2018 (UTC)
::Translation is a more complex task than replacing each word in the passage from one language with an identical or near-identical word in otheranother. One problem (among others) encountered is that words in a text to be translated often have a primary meaning and certain additional connations. Here sperma (especially in the second instance) seems to mean offspring but also have this extra connotation , in the context of Onan’s sex with Tamar , of ejaculate (i.e. sperm). This is well-captured by the archaic use of the english word “seed”, which like sperma, has both of these connotations. Onan refuses to give his sperm during sex for his brother (i.e. in service of his brother), and he refuses to give his brother offspring in doing so.::I think Orthodox Christians (and anyone else) should be concerned when a word is added to a text which seems to change that text’s meaning. The incorporation of the Filioque into the creed in Rome in the 11th century was concerning because it involved changing the meaning of this phrase to something new (and confusing), and because it was done unilaterally, without consultation with other local churches through a council (and done without justification, seemingly with the purpose of pleasing the powerful Holy Roman Empire). On the other handIn contrast, Jerome’s inclusion of “semen” as a direct object of “fundebat”, where in the Greek it was merely implied, only clarifies the meaning of the relevant text. --[[User:Gmharvey|Gmharvey]] ([[User talk:Gmharvey|talk]]) 11:37, June 29, 2018 (UTC)